Few sample questions for CET in NERVOUS SYSTEM AND ENDOCRINE FUNCTIONS OF THE PITUITARY

1. The medulla oblongata continues posteriorly as spinal cord through an opening of the cranium called
   (1) foramen magnum
   (2) foramen ovale
   (3) foramen of Monro
   (4) oburator foramen
2. The growth of corpus leuteum is initiated by
   (1) FSH
   (2) PRL
   (3) ICSH
   (4) estrogen
3. The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by a transverse band of tissue called
   (1) corpus adiposum
   (2) corpus callosum
   (3) corpus striatum
   (4) corpus allata
4. The rhombencephalon consists of
   (1) cerebrum
   (2) cerebellum, medulla oblongata & pons
   (3) cerebrum & cerebellum
   (4) cerebrum, medulla oblongata & pons
5. The ‘brain stem’ consists of
   (1) cerebellum and medulla oblongata
   (2) mid brain and medulla oblongata
   (3) pons and medulla oblongata
   (4) mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata
6. This layer forms the outermost covering of brain
   (1) arachnoid
   (2) piamater
   (3) duramater
   (4) CSF
7. Various releasing factors which stimulate the secretion of hormones are present in
   (1) pituitary
   (2) pineal gland
   (3) thalamus
   (4) hypothalamus
8. Inadequate secretion of corticosteroids of the adrenal gland causes
   (1) Cushing’s syndrome
   (2) myxoedema
   (3) Simmond’s disease
   (4) Addison’s disease
9. Which one of the nervous disorders is characterised by symptoms like bradykinesia, akinesia and tremors ?
   (1) epilepsy
   (2) Alzheimer's disease
   (3) Parkinson's disease
   (4) Huntington's chorea
10. In an accident, a person’s brain was injured due to which he could not regulate body temperature, hunger and water balance. Which one of the following parts of his brain was affected ?
    (1) hypothalamus
    (2) medulla oblongata
    (3) cerebellum
    (4) pons
11. Lateral ventricles are present in
    (1) cerebrum
    (2) cerebellum
    (3) medulla
    (4) spinal cord
12. Identify from the following, a hormone produced by the pituitary gland in both males and females but fuctional only in females
    (1) vasopressin
    (2) relaxin
    (3) prolactin
    (4) STH
13. Match the different terms listed under column I with the meanings given under column II; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.
    Column I Column II
    A. Sulci p. Lateral fissure
    B. Gyri q. Intersection of the two optic nerves
    C. Optic chiasma r. Shallow grooves on the cerebrum
    D. Sylvian fissure s. Central fissure
    t. Convolutions or folds on cerebrum
    (1) A=t, B=s, C=q, D=p
    (2) A=t, B=r, C=q, D=p
    (3) A=r, B=t, C=q, D=p
    (4) A=r, B=s, C=q, D=t
14. A region that selectively accumulates iodine in the body is
    (1) thymus
    (2) spleen
    (3) thyroid
    (4) pituitary
15. The dorsal root of a spinal nerve is
    (1) sensory
    (2) motor
    (3) mixed
    (4) non nervous
16. Adenohypophysis is formed from
    (1) hypothalamus
    (2) Rathke’s pouch
    (3) mesenteron
    (4) prosencephalon
17. The ‘yellow body’ in the ovary is responsible for production of
    (1) progesterone
    (2) FSH
    (3) LH
    (4) lactogenic principle
18. Hallucinogenic drug among the following is
    (1) morphine
    (2) cocaine
    (3) LSD
    (4) heroin
19. Read the two statements A and B and identify the correct choice from those given;
    Statement A: ADH is a hormone of the adenohypophysis.
    Statement B: Vasopressin is necessary for the dilution and concentration of urine.
    (1) statement A is true & B is wrong
    (2) statement B is true & A is wrong
    (3) both the statements A & B are true
    (4) both the statements A & B are wrong
20. Respiration, heart beat and peristalsis are controlled by
    (1) medulla oblongata
    (2) medulla oblongata and cerebrum
    (3) medulla oblongata and cerebellum
    (4) cerebellum
21. Corpora quadrigemina is located in
    (1) prosencephalon
    (2) diencephalon
    (3) mesencephalon
    (4) rhombencephalon
22. Match the functions listed under column I with the parts of the brain given under column II; choose the choice in which the alphabets of the two columns are correctly matched
    Column I (Functions) Column II (parts of brain)
    A. Reflex actions p. Hypothalamus
    B. Temperature control, sleep, appetite, etc., q. Corpora quadrigemina
    C. Visual and auditory reflexes r. Spinal cord
    D. Bridge between mid brain & medulla oblongata s. Cerebrum
    t. Pons
    (1) A=r, B=p, C=q, D=t
    (2) A=r, B=t, C=p, D=s
    (3) A=q, B=p, C=s, D=t
    (4) A=s, B=r, C=q, D=t
23. `Huntingson’s chorea’ is a disease
    (1) which affects the kidney
    (2) with degeneration of nervous system leading to involuntary shaking of head, arms and legs
    (3) similar to diabetes
    (4) common in Korea
24. In a human being, the number of spinal nerves is
    (1) 31 pairs
    (2) 12 pairs
    (3) 10 pairs
    (4) 6 pairs
25. Match the hormones listed under column I with the roles given under column II; choose the choice in which the alphabets of the two columns are correctly matched
    Column I (Hormones) Column II (Roles)
    A. FSH p. Preparation of endometrium for implantation
    B. LH q. Female secondary sexual characters
    C. Progesterone r. Contraction of uterine muscles
    D. Estrogen s. Development of corpus leuteum
    t. Maturation of graafian follicle
    (1) A=q, B=s, C=p, D=r
    (2) A=t, B=p, C=s, D=q
    (3) A=r, B=t, C=s, D=q
    (4) A=t, B=s, C=p, D=q
26. Consider the following sttements;
    (i) grey matter surrounds the white matter in the brain
    (ii) grey matter surrounds the white matter in the spinal cord
    (iii) white matter surrounds the grey matter in the spinal cord
    (iv) white matter surrounds the grey matter in the brain
    Of these statements:
    (1) (i) alone is correct
    (2) (i) and (iii) are correct
    (3) (i) and (iv) are correct
    (4) (iv) alone is correct
27. A person excretes a large quantity of dilute urine and drinks a large quantity of water. But, his blood glucose level is normal. This may be because of
    (1) hyposecretion of insulin by the pancreas
    (2) hyposecretion of vasopressin by the posterior pituitary
    (3) hypersecretion of glucagon by the pancreas
    (4) decrease in glucose level in urine
28. LSD, morphine and bhang are respectively obtained from
    (1) Claviceps, Cannabis and Rauwolfia
    (2) Cannabis, Claviceps and Fusarium
    (3) Claviceps, Rauwolfia and Papaver
    (4) Claviceps, Papaver and Cannabis
29. Match the parts of brain listed under column I with the functions given under column II; choose the choice in which the alphabets of the two columns are correctly matched
    Column I (Parts of brain) Column II (Function)
    A. Cerebral hemisphere p. Relaying impulses
    B. Thalamus q. Posture and balance
    C. Cerebellum r. Movement of heart, lungs, stomach, etc.,
    D. Medulla oblangata s. Reflex actions
    t. Voluntary control, intelligence, hearing, speech
    (1) A=t, B=q, C=p, D=s
    (2) A=t, B=p, C=q,D=r
    (3) A=t, B=s, C=q, D=t
    (4) A=r, B=q, C=p, D=r
30. The neural pathway involved in sudden, automatic and stereotyped response to any kind of stimulus brought about by the spinal cord is
    (1) reflex action
    (2) reflex arc
    (3) saltatory conduction
    (4) spinal reflex
31. The part of hind brain responsible for ‘hand – eye’ coordination is
    (1) pons
    (2) medulla oblongata
    (3) hypothalamus
    (4) cerebellum
32. Match the name of the commonly abused drug listed under column I with the example given under column II; choose the choice which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns
    Column I (Abused drug) Column II (Example)
    A. Opiates p. Ganja and charas
    B. Stimulants q. Nembutol and secanol
    C. Hallucinogens r. Benzedrine and methedrine
    D. Depressants s. Rum and whisky
    t. Opium and heroin
    (1) A=s, B=t, C=r, D=p
    (2) A=t, B=q, C=r, D=q
    (3) A=t, B=r, C=q, D=p
    (4) A=t, B=r, C=p, D=q
33. Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements ?
    (1) medulla oblongata
    (2) cerebellum
    (3) diencephalons
    (4) cerebrum
34. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter
    (1) acetyl choline
    (2) norepinephrine
    (3) dopamine
    (4) GABA
35. Column I lists some disorders associated with brain. Column II lists the causes for these disorders. Match the two columns and identify the correct option from those given
    Column I Column II
    A. Epilepsy p. degeneration of neurons in cerebral cortex
    B. Alzheimer's disease q. irregular electrical discharges in the neurons
    C. Parkinson's disease r. decreased production of acetyl choline
    D. Huntington's chorea s. degeneration of dopamine releasing neurons
    t. formation of blood clots in the brain
    (1) A=t, B=s, C=r, D=p
    (2) A=q, B=r, C=p, D=s
    (3) A=q, B=r, C=s, D=p
    (4) A=q, B=s,C=r, D=p
36. Which hormone is not produced by the pituitary gland ?
    (1) FSH
    (2) MSH
    (3) prolactin
    (4) oxytocin
37. Aqueduct of Sylvius is found between
    (1) lateral ventricles
    (2) optocoel
    (3) third ventricle
    (4) third and fourth ventricles
38. Affarent nerve fibre carries impulses from
    (1) effector to CNS
    (2) receptor to CNS
    (3) CNS to muscle
    (4) CNS to receptor
39. Foramen of Monroe in the brain is an aperture between
    (1) 3rd and 4th ventricles
    (2) rhinocoel and diacoel
    (3) lateral and 3rd ventricles
    (4) diacoel and metacoel
40. CSF is formed by
    (1) ependymal cells
    (2) choroid plexus
    (3) neurons
    (4) neuroglial cells
41. Pneumotaxic centre is present in
    (1) thalamus
    (2) pons
    (3) medulla oblongata
    (4) cerebrum
42. Which of the following hormones is not a protein or peptide ?
    (1) oxytocin
    (2) ADH
    (3) insulin
    (4) progesterone
43. If an adult human female took a drug that inhibited the release of LH, which of the following would not occur ?
    (1) the menstrual cycle
    (2) the release of an ovum from a mature follicle
    (3) secretion of estrogen by the follicular cells
    (4) secretion of GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus
44. The non-excitable and variously shaped cells found between the neurons are
    (1) glial cells
    (2) Schwann cells
    (3) dendrites
    (4) tigroid bodies

Few sample questions for CET in PHYSIOLOGY OF CIRCULATION

1. When the right ventricle contracts, blood is pushed into
   (1) aorta
   (2) left ventricle
   (3) right auricle
   (4) pulmonary artery
2. Insufficient supply of oxygenated blood to heart is called
   (1) myocardial infarction
   (2) myocardial ischemia
   (3) heart attack
   (4) cyanosis
3. The fine, muscular fibres which prevent the collapsing of the atrio-ventricular valves are called are present in
   (1) tendons
   (2) chorda tendinnae
   (3) papillary muscles
   (4) ventricular fibrillation
4. Myocardial infarction is the
   (1) necrosis of heart muscles
   (2) insufficient supply of oxygenated blood to heart
   (3) increased heart rate
   (4) collapsing of the atrio-centricular valves
5. Heart is supplied with oxygenated blood by
   (1) pulmonary artery
   (2) pulmonary vein
   (3) carotid artery
   (4) coronary artery
6. Match the heart disorders listed under column-I with their meanings given under column-II; choose the answer with the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.
   Column I Column II
   A. Stenosis p. A decrease in heart rate
   B. Bradycardia q. Blue baby disease
   C. Cyanosis r. Calcification or hardening of valves
   D. Tachycardia s. Necrosis of cardiac muscles
   t. An increase in heart rate
   (1) A=q, B=p, C=s, D=t
   (2) A=r, B=t, C=q, D=p
   (3) A=r, B=p, C=q, D=t
   (4) A=r, B=t, C=p, D=q
7. The mitral valve is present between
   (1) right auricle and right ventricle
   (2) left auricle and left ventricle
   (3) right auricle and left ventricle
   (4) left auricle and right ventricle
8. The heart is enclosed in a transparent membrane called
   (1) heart membrane
   (2) pericardium
   (3) mucus membrane
   (4) peritoneum
9. The pattern of contraction and relaxation of heart is referred to as
   (1) blood pressure
   (2) arterial flow
   (3) blood flow
   (4) cardiac cycle
10. The typical `Lub-dub’ sounds heard in the heart beat of a healthy person are due to
    (1) closing of the tricuspid & bicuspid valves
    (2) blood flow through arteries
    (3) closing of the tricuspid & bicuspid valves followed by the closing of semi-lunar valves
    (4) closing of the semi-lunar valves
11. Blood pressure is defined as
    (1) the force with which blood pushes against the wall of the blood vessels
    (2) the force with which blood is pushed to the legs
    (3) the force with which blood comes out of the ventricles
    (4) the force with which blood comes out of the ventricle
12. In a cardiac out put of 5250 ml. per minute, with 75 heart beats per minute, the stroke volume is
    (1) 55ml
    (2) 60ml
    (3) 70ml
    (4) 80ml
13. Hardening of arteries due to deposition of cholesterol is called
    (1) thrombosis
    (2) atherosclerosis
    (3) rhinitis
    (4) stenosis
14. How many times a red blood corpuscle will have to pass through the heart in its journey from hepatic artery to the aorta ?
    (1) two times
    (2) only once
    (3) several times
    (4) four times
15. How many double circulations are normally completed by the human heart, in one minute?
    (1) 8
    (2) 16
    (3) 72
    (4) 36
16. Tetralogy of Fallot are attributes of
    (1) infarction
    (2) cyanosis
    (3) cardiomegaly
    (4) coronary thrombosis
17. The animal which has the smallest RBC is
    (1) Salamander (Amphiuma)
    (2) Musk deer (Tragupus javanicus)
    (3) Camel
    (4) Chameleon
18. Which statement is false ?
    (1) veins are typically larger in diameter than arteries
    (2) the walls of arteries are elastic, enabling them to stretch and shrink with changes in blood pressure
    (3) the blood pressure in veins is normally too low for blood to return to the heart without the action of skeletal muscles
    (4) because of their small size, capillaries contain blood that is moving more quickly than in other parts of the circulatory system
19. Which statement about mammalian heart function is false ?
    (1) Contraction of the heart originates at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium
    (2) the atrioventricular node propagates the contraction to the ventricles
    (3) during atrial contraction, venous blood flows into the right atrium
    (4) the pulmonary artery contains oxygenated blood
20. During venricular systole
    (1) oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary vein
    (2) oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the artery
    (3) oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery
    (4) oxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary vein and deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery
21. In an undamaged blood vessel, conversion of prothrombin to thrombin is prevented by
    (1) fibrinogen
    (2) Ca++
    (3) factor VIII
    (4) heparin
22. In a cardiac cycle, blood pressure is at a maximum when the
    (1) atria are contracting during systole
    (2) ventricles are relaxing during systole
    (3) ventricles are relaxing during diastole
    (4) ventricle are contracting during systole

FEW QUESTIONS FOR CET IN PLANT WATER RELATIONS

1. Pressure potential exerted by a cell vacuole is
   (1) osmotic pressure
   (2) turgor pressure
   (3) solute potential
   (4) diffusion pressure deficit


2. Osmotic potential of pure water is
   (1) one
   (2) zero
   (3) less than one
   (4) between zero and one


3. A cell is plasmolysed after being kept in hypertonic solution. What will be present between cell wall and plasma membrane ?
   (1) isotonic solution
   (2) hypotonic solution
   (3) hypertonic solution
   (4) cytoplasm


4. In hypertonic solution, the cell’s water potential
   (1) decreases
   (2) increases
   (3) first increases, then decreases
   (4) does’nt change


5. In osmosis, water always moves towards
   (1) the hypotonic solution, that is, the solution with greater solute concentration
   (2) the hypotonic solution, that is, the solution with lesser solute concentration
   (3) the hypertonic solution, that is, the solution with greater solute concentration
   (4) the hypertonic solution, that is, the solution with lesser solute concentration


6. The movement of water from one cell of cortex to adjacent cell in root is mainly due to
   (1) accumulation of inorganic salts in cells
   (2) accumulation of organic compounds in cells
   (3) water potential gradient
   (4) chemical potential gradient


7. A plant cell is placed in a solution whose solute concentration is twice as great as the concentration of the cell cytoplasm. The cell membrane is selectively permeable, allowing water but not the solutes to pass through. What will happen to the cell ?
   (1) no change will occur because it is plant cell which has a rigid cell wall
   (2) the cell will shrivel because of osmosis
   (3) the cell will swell because of osmosis
   (4) the cell will shrivel because of active transport of water


8. A flaccid cell is one in which
   (1) cell wall is shrunken due to water deficiency
   (2) cell wall is not shrunken but cell membrane has contracted
   (3) cell wall is completely stretched
   (4) cell wall breaks due to excessive pressure of cytoplasm


9. When solute is added to the solvent
   (1) free energy of solvent decreases
   (2) osmotic potential increases
   (3) water potential decreases
   (4) all these


10. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?
    (1) water potential is the chemical potential of water
    (2) solute potential is always negative
    (3) water potential is equal to solute potential in a fully turgid cell
    (4) pressure potential is zero in a flaccid cell


11. In a fully turgid cell, (Comed 08)
    (1) Ψs will be negative and Ψp will be positive
    (2) Ψp will be negative and Ψs will be positive
    (3) both Ψs and Ψp will be positive
    (4) both Ψs and Ψp will be negative


12. What will be the direction of net osmotic movement of water if a solution ‘A’ enclosed in a semipermeable membrane, having osmotic potential of ‘- 30 bars’ and pressure potential of ‘5 bars’ is submerged in a solution ‘B’ with osmotic potential of ‘- 10 bars’ and pressure potential ‘0’ ? (2002)
    (1) A to B
    (2) B to A
    (3) equal movement in both the directions
    (4) no movement


13. What will be the direction of movement of water when a solution ‘A’ having Ψw –10 bar and solution ‘B’ having Ψw –6 bar are separated by a semipermeable membrane ?
    (1) A to B
    (2) B to A
    (3) from both ‘A’ to ‘B’ and ‘B’ to ‘A’
    (4) there is no movement


14. A cell is placed in 0.5M solution of sugar. If no change in the volume of cell occurs, the concentration of the cell sap would be
    (1) 5M
    (2) 0.5M
    (3) 1.0M
    (4) 0.1M


15. Imbibition involves
    (1) diffusion of water
    (2) movement of water into imbibant through capillary action
    (3) movement of water into imbibant through diffusion as well as capillary action
    (4) absorption of water


16. Dry seeds when placed in water swell up due to
    (1) absorption
    (2) diffusion
    (3) imbibition
    (4) transpiration


17. Wooden pieces inserted in a rock cause its breakdown during rainy season due to (Comed 08)
    (1) osmotic pressure
    (2) turgor pressure
    (3) metric potential
    (4) wall pressure


18. A RBC and a plant cell are placed in distilled water. The solute concentration is the same in both the cells. What changes would be observed in them ? (CET 09)
    (1) Both plant cell and RBC would not undergo any change
    (2) The RBC would increase in size and burst while the plant cell would remain about the same size
    (3) The plant cell would increase in size and burst while the RBC would remain about the same size
    (4) Both plant cell and RBC would decrease in size and collapse


19. Which of the following type of water is not available to plants for absorption ?
    (1) hygroscopic water & capillary water
    (2) capillary water & gravitational water
    (3) gravitational water & hygroscopic water
    (4) capillary water only


20. Many transplanted seedlings may not survive because (2000)
    (1) they donot like the new soil
    (2) they donot get the required mineral salts
    (3) leaves get damaged during transfer
    (4) most of the roothairs are lost during transplantation


21. The correct route of water in a plant is
    (1) passage cell of endodermis – xylem – cortex – root hair
    (2) cortex – root hair – xylem – passage cells of endodermis
    (3) root hair – cortex – passage cell of endodermis – xylem
    (4) xylem – passage cell of endodermis – cortex – root hair


22. Identify the correct statement;
    (1) hypotonic medium triggers increased water absorption by root hairs
    (2) capillary water is held tightly by the soil particles
    (3) the initial stage of water absorption is by osmosis
    (4) a cell’s water potential decreases in hypotonic solution


23. Root cap has no role in water absorption because it has
    (1) no cells containing chloroplasts
    (2) no direct connection with vascular bundles
    (3) no root hairs
    (4) loosely arranged cells


24. A correct statement among the following is
    (1) the apoplastic movement of water occurs exclusively through the intercellular spaces and the walls of cells
    (2) movement through apoplast involves crossing the cell membrane
    (3) apoplastic transport does not depend on gradient
    (4) apoplast provides many barriers to water movement


25. Which of the following would not be present in significant amounts in the xylem sap ?
    (1) nitrogen
    (2) sugar
    (3) phosphorous
    (4) water


26. Water vapour in woody plants are removed through
    (1) stomata
    (2) lenticels
    (3) stomata and lenticels
    (4) lenticels and hydathodes


27. What is the main force responsible for the upward movement of water in the trunk of a tree ?
    (1) evaporation of water from leaf surface
    (2) breakdown and release of energy of sugar molecules
    (3) pressure exerted by the root cells
    (4) osmotic changes caused by alterations in salt content


28. Which of the following statement/s is/are true ?
    (1) the apoplastic movement of water occurs through the cell wall without crossing any membranes
    (2) the symplastic movement of water occurs from cell to cell through the plasmodesmata
    (3) water potential of the cell increases as the concentration of solutes in it increases
    (4) cell to cell movement of water occurs from lower water potential to higher water potential
    (1) 2 only
    (2) 1 and 2 only
    (3) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (4) 2, 3 and 4 only


29. Root hairs absorb bulk of water from soil when
    (1) osmotic concentration is same in the two
    (2) solute concentration is higher in soil solution
    (3) solute concentration is lower in root hairs
    (4) solute concentration is higher in root hairs


30. What keeps the force of gravity from pulling water molecules out of leaves ?
    (1) upward pressure from leaves
    (2) high water pressure in the leaves
    (3) movement of water towards a sugar sink
    (4) cohesion and adhesion of water molecules


31. Which factor would contribute the most to increasing the rate of water movement upward in xylem ?
    (1) generation of root pressure
    (2) availability of soil water
    (3) rate of transpiration from leaves
    (4) rate of carbohydrate loading


32. A common feature shared by guard cells and mesophyll cells is (2002)
    (1) differentially thick cell wall
    (2) uniformly thin cell wall
    (3) presence of chloroplasts
    (4) dumbell shaped structure


33. High humidity during rains directly affects the following physiological function of flowering plants
    (1) photosynthesis
    (2) transpiration
    (3) metabolism
    (4) respiration


34. Transpiration facilitates
    (1) excretion of minerals
    (2) electrolyte balance
    (3) absorption of water
    (4) opening of stomata


35. If transpiration is low and absorption is high, then
    (1) leaves will wilt
    (2) mesophyll cell will die
    (3) photosynthesis is disturbed
    (4) root pressure becomes maximum


36. Which of the following changes in the cell sap of guard cells leads to events responsible for opening of the stomata during day time ?
    (1) decrease in ψs but increase in ψp
    (2) increase in ψs but decrease in ψp
    (3) increase in both ψs and ψp
    (4) decrease in both ψs and ψp


37. Stoma opens when (CET 09)
    (1) guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
    (2) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to the influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
    (3) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
    (4) guard cells swell due to a decrease in their water potential


38. ………… is the enzyme responsible for stomatal movement. (Comed 07)
    (1) pyruvic kinase
    (2) cytochrome oxidase
    (3) PEP carboxylase
    (4) RUBISCO


39. Which of the following would ultimately trigger opening of stomata ?
    (1) extreme heat
    (2) loss of K+ by guard cells
    (3) nightfall
    (4) swelling of guard cells due to osmosis


40. What will be the effect of accumulation of K+ in guard cells ?
    (1) water potential increases
    (2) water potential decreases
    (3) turgidity is lost
    (4) exosmosis occurs


41. A sudden increase in CO2 concentration around a leaf will cause
    (1) wider opening of stomata
    (2) decrease in transpiration due to stomatal closure
    (3) increase in rate of transpiration
    (4) increase in the rate of absorption of water by roots


42. Stomata open when guard cells have
    (1) more K+
    (2) Less K+
    (3) More Cl-
    (4) More ABA


43. Which of the following is true ?
    (1) ABA stimulates the opening of stomata
    (2) ABA and cytokinin have no effect on stomatal movement
    (3) ABA stimulates the opening of stomata and cytokinin stimulates the closure of stomata
    (4) ABA stimulates the closure of stomata and cytokinin stimulates the opening of stomata


44. Transpiration differs from evaporation chiefly in
    (1) rate of water loss
    (2) that transpiration is a physiological process while evaporation is a physical process
    (3) transpiration is a physical process while evaporation is a physiological process
    (4) frequency of water loss


45. Transpiration in plants would be most rapid when
    (1) atmosphere is saturated with water
    (2) there is excess of water in the soil
    (3) the air is still
    (4) environmental conditions are dry


46. Identify the correct statement;
    (1) ABA is produced during water stress which causes closure of stomata
    (2) the stomata of water lily opens at night
    (3) stomatal closure is facilitated by conversion of starch into organic acids
    (4) the outer wall of guard cells is suberised


47. Transpiration rate in sunflower leaf is
    (1) higher on the upper surface
    (2) higher on the lower surface
    (3) equal on both the surfaces
    (4) lower on the lower surface


48. In which of the following plants, there will be no transpiration ? (2005)
    (1) aquatic submerged plants
    (2) plants living in deserts
    (3) aquatic plants with floating leaves
    (4) plants growing in hilly regions


49. Which of these reduces rate of transpiration ?
    (1) rise in temperature
    (2) increase in water uptake
    (3) increase in wind velocity
    (4) decrease in light intensity


50. Match the type of stomatal distribution listed under column I and the surface on which stomata are present, given under column II.
    Column I Column II
    A. Potamogeton type p. Stomata only on upper surface
    B. Oat or Oak type q. Stomata on only lower surface
    C. Water lily type r. Stomata are vestigeal or absent
    D. Apple type s. More stomata on lower surface
    t. Equal distribution of stomata on the two surfaces
    (1) A = r, B = t, C = p, D = q
    (2) A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
    (3) A = s, B = r, C = q, D = p
    (4) A = r, B = t, C = s, D = q


51. Match the type of stomatal rhythm listed under column I and the daily stomatal rhythm exhibited by them, given under column II.
    Column I Column II
    A. Alfalfa type p. Stomata remain closed throughout
    B. Potato type q. Stomata remain open throughout
    C. Barley type r. Stomata remain open throughout except
    for a few hours in the evening
    s. Stomata remain closed throughout except
    for a few hours in the day time
    (a) A-q, B-r, C-s
    (b) A-r, B-s, C-q
    (c) A-q, B-r, C-p
    (d) A-q, B-S, C-p


52. Guttation occurs when
    (1) transpiration is very low and absorption is very high
    (2) transpiration and absorption are very high
    (3) transpiration and absorption are very low
    (4) transpiration is very high and absorption is very low


53. Which of the following physical processes is involved chiefly in causing guttation ?
    (1) cohesive force
    (2) osmosis
    (3) root pressure
    (4) transpiration pull


54. The achlorophyllous, loosely arranged parenchyma cells present at the tip of tracheary elements below hydathodes constitute
    (1) complementary tissue
    (2) epiblema
    (3) epithem
    (4) passage cells


55. Which would do maximum harm to a tree ? (CET 07)
    (1) loss of half of its leaves
    (2) loss of all its bark
    (3) loss of all its leaves
    (4) loss of half of its branches


56. Which of the following is a difference between transport by xylem and transport by phloem ?
    (1) active transport moves xylem sap but not phloem sap
    (2) transpiration moves phloem sap but not xylem sap
    (3) xylem sap moves up whereas phloem sap moves up and down
    (4) xylem sap moves from sugar source to sink, but phloem sap does not


57. Although a girdled tree (upto bast) may survive for sometime, it will eventually die because
    (1) water will not move upwards
    (2) water will not move downwards
    (3) sugars and other organic materials will not move downwards
    (4) sugars and other organic materials will not move upwards

Sample questions for CET

Few Sample questions for CET in

PLANT ANATOMY AND HISTOLOGY

1. Potentialities of vegetative cells other than the zygote to give rise to a new plant is called
   (a) inoculum
   (b) polyploidy
   (c) embryony
   (d) totipotency
2. Meristematic cells generally possess
   (a) dense cytoplasm only
   (b) non vacuolated, dense cytoplasm and a metabolic nucleus
   (c) cytoplasm with active chloroplasts and vacuoles
   (d) cytoplasm with vacuoles
3. Dividing cells which are not yet committed to becoming specific cell type are (Comed 08)
   (a) ground cells
   (b) epidermal cells
   (c) meristem cells
   (d) periderm cells
4. Based on the developmental pattern, tissues are grouped as
   (a) primary and secondary meristems
   (b) meristematic and permanent tissues
   (c) apical and intercalary meristems
   (d) simple and complex tissues
5. Epidermis, cortex and stele are derived respectively from
   (a) apical, intercalary and lateral meristems
   (b) dermatogen, periblem and plerome
   (c) calyptrogen, dermatogen and histogen
   (d) periderm, protoderm and procambium
6. The meristematic tissue which gives rise to the vascular tissues is
   (a) protoderm
   (b) procambium
   (c) ground meristem
   (d) dermatogen
7. Meristematic tissue present between xylem and phloem in stems is a
   (a) primary meristem
   (b) secondary meristem
   (c) intercalary meristem
   (d) promeristem
8. Meristem that occurs at the junction of leaf lamina and sheathing base in grasses is
   (a) apical meristem
   (b) intercalary meristem
   (c) lateral meristem
   (d) secondary meristem
9. Grass stems elongate by the activity (CET ’04)
   (a) primary meristem
   (b) secondary meristem
   (c) intercalary meristem
   (d) apical meristem
10. Increase in the length of the petiole is generally due to the activity of
    (a) apical meristem
    (b) intercalary meristem
    (c) lateral meristem
    (d) vascular cambium
11. Intercalary meristem is located in
    (a) Petiole and internode
    (b) Stem tip
    (c) Root
    (d) Bud
12. Cambium is considered as a lateral meristem because
    (a) it gives rise to lateral branches
    (b) it increases the height of the plant
    (c) it increases the girth of the plant
    (d)it is responsible for the formation of flowers
13. Cork cambium is a
    (a) primary meristem
    (b) secondary meristem
    (c) promeristem
    (d) meristem associated with vascular bundle
14. Interfascicular cambium is a
    (a) lateral meristem
    (b) secondary meristem
    (c) lateral and secondary meristem
    (d) none of the above
15. An increase in the thickness or girth of the plant body is due to the activity of
    (a) apical meristem
    (b) intercalary meristem
    (c) lateral meristem
    (d) all the above
16. Examples for lateral meristem are (CET 09)
    (a) phellogen and procambium
    (b) fascicular cambium and procambium
    (c) procambium and dermatogen
    (d) fascicular cambium and cork cambium
17. In emergency or when wounds occur, the additional tissue formation and repair work takes place due to the activity of
    (a) apical meristem
    (b) phellogen
    (c) intercalary meristem
    (d) secondary cortex
18. Simple tissues are called so because they
    (a) are thin walled
    (b) are made up of single type of cells
    (c) are made up of more than one type of cells
    (d) have cells with dense, non-vacuolated cytoplasm with active nuclei
19. The most primitive and least specialised of the simple permanent tissues is
    (a) parenchyma
    (b) chlorenchyma
    (c) collenchyma
    (d) sclerenchyma
20. Characterstic feature of parenchyma cells is the
    (a) presence of thckenings at the corners
    (b) presence of lignified walls
    (c) presence of intercellular spaces
    (d) all the above
21. Parenchyma cells which are elongated and taper at either ends constitute
    (a) prosenchyma
    (b) chlorenchyma
    (c) aerenchyma
    (d) palisade parenchyma
22. Parenchyma cells which contain mineral crystals like raphides are called
    (a) prosenchyma
    (b) elaioplasts
    (c) chondriosomes
    (d) idioblasts
23. The coir of commercial importance is nothing but
    (a) elongated parenchyma cells
    (b) sclerenchyma cells
    (c) collenchyma cells
    (d) tracheae
24. Short sclerenchymatous cells which are irregular and variously shaped are called
    (a) xylem fibres
    (b) bast fibres
    (c) sclerenchyma fibres
    (d) sclereids
25. Coconut shell and wall of pomaceous fruits like pear are composed of
    (a) sclereids
    (b) fibres
    (c) collenchyma
    (d) wood fibres
26. Match the following and choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.
    A. Osteosclereid a) Isodiametric
    B. Asterosclereid b) Rod shaped
    C. Brachysclereid c) Star shaped
    D. Macrosclereid d) Bone like
    (a) A - d, B - c, C - a, D – b
    (b) A - d, B - a, C - b, D - c
    (c) A - c, B - d, C - a, D – b
    (d) A - d, B - c, C - b, D - a
27. The balloon like ingrowths of adjacent parenchyma cells in the tracheids and vessels are called
    (a) callose
    (b) vesicles
    (c) tylosoids
    (d) tyloses
28. Wood parenchyma cells are associated with (1987)
    (a) bast
    (b) bark
    (c) phloem
    (d) xylem
29. Annular and spiral thickenings are found in
    (a) protoxytem
    (b) metaxylem
    (c) primary xylem
    (d) both (a) and (b)
30. The older xylem elements are central and the younger are peripheral. Here, the order of differentiation of xylem is
    (a) acropetal
    (b) basipetal
    (c) centripetal
    (d) centrifugal
31. Wounded plants or those under stress have in their sieve tubes a polymer of glucose called
    (a) cellulose
    (b) hemicellulose
    (c) callose
    (d) callus
32. Phloem in monocots lacks
    (a) phloem fibres
    (b) phloem parenchyma
    (c) sieve elements
    (d) companion cells.
33. Albuminous cells are the elements of phloem in
    (a) angiosperms
    (b) gymnosperms
    (c) pteridophytes
    (d) none of these
34. The cambium ring formed during secondary growth is a combination of
    (a) promeristem & primary meristem
    (b) primary meristem & secondary meristem
    (c) intercalary meristem & ground meristem
    (d) secondary meristem & intercalary meristem
35. During secondary growth, the fusiform initials give rise to
    (a) secondary vascular tissues
    (b) medullary rays
    (c) secondary cortex
    (d) medulla
36. In one year, secondary xylem is formed
    (a) only once
    (b) twice
    (c) thrice
    (d) many times
37. Periderm is formed from
    (a) phellogen
    (b) fascicular cambium
    (c) interfascicular cambium
    (c) vascular cambium
38. An annual ring consists of one ring each of
    (a) heart wood & sap wood
    (b) early wood & late wood
    (c) duramen & laburnum
    (d) periderm
39. Annual rings consist of
    (a) primary phloem and medullary rays
    (b) secondary phloem and medullary rays
    (c) primary xylem and medullary rays
    (d) secondary xylem and medullary rays
40. In a dicot plant, the annual rings are formed due to
    (a) alternate rings of xylem and phloem every year
    (b) formation of xylem in one year and phloem in the subsequent year
    (c) formation of elements of different diameters and wall thicknesses under varying environmental condition
    (d) all of these
41. As secondary growth proceeds, in a dicot stem, the thickness of (2006)
    (a) sapwood increases
    (b) heartwood increases
    (c) both sapwood & heart wood increases
    (d) both heart wood & sapwood remains the same
42. The older resin clogged secondary xylem in the central part of the tree trunk and the younger outer secondary xylem which conducts water are _____ and _____ respectively. (Comed 08)
    (a) duramen and laburnum
    (b) alburnum and duramen
    (c) autumn wood and spring wood
    (d) spring wood and autumn wood
43. What is / are true about heart wood ? (CET 09)
    (A) It does not help in water conduction
    (B) It is also called alburnum
    (C) It is dark in colour but very soft
    (D)It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.,
    (a) B, C and D (b) A and D (c) B and D (d) A, B and C
44. Identify the correct statement; (CET 09)
    (a) Because of marked climatic variations, plants growing near sea shore don’t produce annual rings
    (b) The age of the plant can be determined by its height
    (c) Healing of damaged tissue is because of the activity of sclerenchyma cells
    (d) Grafting is difficult in monocot plants as they have scattered vascular bundles
45. In which of the following, there is no differentiation of bark, sap wood and heart wood ?
    (a) Date palm
    (b) Neem
    (c) Mango
    (d) Banyan
46. Porous wood is characterized by the
    (a) absence of tracheae
    (b) presence of vessels
    (c) absence of vessels
    (d) presence of sieve tubes
47. Major part of wood of old dicot stem is filled with tannins, resins and gums. This wood is called
    (a) heart wood
    (b) hard wood
    (c) laburnum
    (d) spring wood
48. The wood of commerce is
    (a) Sap wood
    (b) Heart wood
    (c) Spring wood
    (d) Autumn wood
49. A waterproofing substance secreted by the cork and endodermal cells is
    (a) cutin
    (b) tannin
    (c) suberin
    (d) lignin
50. With reference to bark, which one of the following statements is wrong ?
    (a) it is a tissue that is external to phellogen
    (b) it is a tissue with cells having a living protoplasm
    (c) it protects the plant from infection
    (d) it prevents the loss of water from the plant body
51. Loosely arranged achlorophyllous parenchymatous cells in lenticels constitute
    (a) epithem
    (b) complementary tissue
    (c) velamen tissue
    (d) exodermis
52. If the cork from a tree is not removed carefully, then
    (a) the xylem layer transporting water and minerals can be damaged
    (b) the primary medullary rays giving strength can be damaged
    (c) the inner pith with storage cells can be damaged
    (d) the phloem used in transporting the sugars can be damaged
53. Identify the correct statement with respect to pericycle;
    (a) It is distinguished in monocot stems
    (b) It is the region of origin of lateral roots
    (c) It is partly sclerenchymatous in roots
    (d) It is the innermost layer of cortex
54. Lysigenous cavities are characteristic of
    (a) Maize stem
    (b) Helianthus stem
    (c) Maize root
    (d) Helianthus leaf
55. Lysigenous cavity is formed by
    (a) protoxylem
    (b) metaxylem
    (c) secondary xylem
    (d) none of these
56. Pith is large and very well developed in
    (a) monocot stem
    (b) monocot root
    (c) dicot root
    (d) none of these
57. Parts of the stem which are present in dictos but absent in monocots are
    (a) epidermis & endodermis
    (b) hypodermis & endodermis
    (c) hypodermis & pericycle
    (d) endodermis & pericycle
58. Endodermis of Helianthus stem is also known as
    (a) starch sheath
    (b) bundle sheath
    (c) bundle cap
    (d) border parenchyma
59. In bifacial leaf
    (a) mesophyll is differentiated
    (b) mesophyll is undifferentiated
    (c) there are usually more number of stomata on the upper epidermis
    (d) there are equal number of stomata on both the epidermal layers
60. A collateral vascular bundle is one in which
    (a) xylem is surrounded by phloem
    (b) xylem and phloem lie in the same radius, xylem being external and phloem internal
    (c) phloem is surrounded by xylem
    (d) xylem and phloem lie in the same bundle, xylem being internal and phloem external
61. A bicollateral vascular bundle has the following arrangement of tissues (2004)
    (a) outer phloem – outer cambium – middle xylem – inner cambium – inner phloem
    (b) outer xylem – outer cambium – middle phloem – inner cambium
    (c) outer phloem – outer xylem – middle cambium – inner phloem – inner phloem
    (d) outer cambium – outer phloem – middle xylem – inner phloem – inner cambium
62. In the monocot root, we observe (2001)
    (a) suberised exodermis, polyarch xylem, pith
    (b) suberised exodermis, casparian strip, passage cells, cambium
    (c) exodermis, endarch, tetrach and closed bundles
    (d) conjoint, collateral, open and polyarch bundles

Some sample questions for CET in Molecular Biology and Biotechnology:

1. The strongest evidence for DNA being the genetic material is deduced from
(a) the fact that DNA is present not only in the nucleus, but also in mitochondria and chloroplast
(b) the situation that chromosomes are made up of DNA
(c) the researches involving transformation experiments in bacteria
(d) the reality that DNA has the potential to duplicate itself

2. Transformation experiments in Diplococcus pneumoniae (Pneumococcus) led to the hypothesis that
(a) RNA is the transforming principle (b) DNA is the genetic material
(c) chromosomes are made up of DNA (d) bacteria have sexual reproduction

3. Nucleic acid was first discovered as ‘nuclein’ by
(a) A Kornberg (b) Fischer (c) F Meischer (d) J Griffith

4. DNA is present in
(a) pyrenoids (b) microbodies (c) dictyosome (d) chondriosome

5. Guanosine differs from Guanylic acid in not having
(a) phosphate (b) sugar (c) nitro-base (d) phosphate and sugar

6. Adenosine is a combination of
(a) ribose, phosphate and adenine (b) ribose and adenine
(c) deoxyribose, phosphate and adenine (d) deoxyribose and adenine

7. The distance between the two strands of DNA is
(a) 20 Å (b) 34 Å (c) 3.4 Å (d) 10 Å

8. The lengths of major groove and minor groove are
(a) 22 Å and 12 Å respectively (b) 20 Å and 10 Å respectively
(c) 34 Å and 3.4 Å respectively (b) 20 Å and 12 Å respectively

9. Chargaff’s rule is applicable to
(a) ssRNA (b) ssDNA (c) dsDNA (d) both ssDNA and ssRNA

10. A Nobel prize was awarded for discovering that there are two purines and two pyrimidines to
(a) F Meischer (b) Feulgen (c) Altman (d) Kossel

11. The phosphate group in the DNA is attached to deoxy-ribose generally at
(a) 2’ and 3’ carbon (b) 2’and 5’ carbon (c) 3’ and 5’ carbon (d) 2’ and 4’ carbon

12. In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base and phosphate groups are attached to the
(a) 1’ and 3’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively (b) 2’ and 3’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively
(c) 1’ and 5’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively (d) 2’ and 5’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively

13. Phosphodiester bond is present in
(a) ATP (b) ADP (c) cAMP (d) Nucleic acids

14. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
(a) antiparallel (b) complementary (c) helically coiled (d) all these

15. The two strands of DNA are linked by hydrogen bonds established by
(a) A - T, G - C (b) A - G, T - C (c) A - C, G - T (d) A - U, G – C

16. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except
(a) a polypeptide chain (b) a mRNA strand
(c) a rRNA strand (d) a complementary DNA strand

17. Purines are
(a) large sized, dicyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases (b) large sized, monocyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases
(c) small sized, monocyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases (d) small sized, dicyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases
18.
A+T
G+C
is referred to as ( in DNA)

(a) base coefficient (b) sedimentation coefficient (c) base ratio (d) Svedberg unit

19. In a DNA molecule,
(a) A + G = T + C (b) A + T = G + C (c) A + C = T + G (d) A + U = G + C

20. In a double stranded DNA which has 15% Adenine, there will be
(a) 15% cytosine (b) 35% cytosine (c) 85% cytosine (d) 30% cytosine

21. A sample of DNA is found to have the base composition (mole ratio) of A = 35, T = 25, G = 24 and C = 16. It suggests that
(a) DNA is circular duplex (b) DNA is linear duplex (c) DNA is single stranded (d) It is Z - DNA

22. DNA replication in eukaryotes commences
(a) from centromere to either end of the chromosome
(b) from both ends of a chromosome simultaneously
(c) from one end of chromosome and proceeds till the other end
(d) at several sites of a chromosome simultaneously

23. The unwinding of DNA duplex is performed by an enzyme called
(a) lactase (b) gyrase (c) maltase (d) ligase

24. `Okazaki fragments’ are
(a) segments of DNA capable of protein synthesis (b) segments of DNA capable of recombination
(c) segments of DNA formed during DNA duplication (d) segments of DNA capable of mutation

25. In a bacterial cell, in the absence of ligase enzyme
(a) the accumulation of Okazaki fragments occurs (b) the RNA primer is not synthesised
(c) replicatioin is not at all initiated (d) replication becomes continuous

26. DNA replication requires
(a) helicase, gyrase, DNA polymerase, primase
(b) helicase, RNA primer, ligase, DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer, DNA polymerase, helicase, ligase, primase
(d) RNA primer, DNA polymerase, primase, helicase, ligase, gyrase

27. A – DNA is
(a) right handed helix with 11 base pairs per turn (b) right handed helix with 9 base pairs per turn
(c) right handed helix with 8 base pairs per turn (d) right handed helix with 10 base pairs per turn

28. Z - DNA is
(a) right handed helix with 9 base pairs per turn
(b) right handed helix with 10 base pairs per turn
(c) left handed helix with 11 base pairs per turn
(d) left handed helix with 12 base pairs per turn
29. Who among the following established that RNA is the genetic material ?
(a) Fraenkal – Conorat (b) Griffith (c) Hershey & chase (d) Avery, McLeod & McCarty

30. Who was awarded the Nobel prize for synthesising RNA ?
(a) Ochoa (b) H G Khorana (c) Kornberg (d) Holley

31. RNA is found
(a) only in cytoplasm (b) only in nucleus (c) only in chromosome (d) both in cytoplasm and nucleus

32. The following has RNA as the genetic material
(a) polio virus (b) T4 bacteriophage (c) wound tumor virus (d) HBV

33. This virus has double stranded genomic RNA
(a) TMV (b) wound tumor virus (c) HIV (d) HBV

34. A riboside is
(a) ribose and base (b) ribose, phosphate and base
(c) base and phosphate (d) ribose and phosphate

35. Uridine is a combination of
(a) ribose and uracil (b) deoxy-ribose and uracil
(c) ribose, phosphate and uracil (d) deoxy-ribose, phosphate and uracil

36. In the clover leaf model of yeast’s alanine – tRNA, the arm without the loop is
(a) DHU arm (b) acceptor arm (c) ribosomal arm (d) aminoacyl arm

37. T y C loop in tRNA is
(a) amino acid binding site (b) mRNA binding site
(c) anticodon site (d) ribosomal binding site

38. DHU loop in tRNA is
(a) amino acid binding site (b) ribosomal binding site
(c) amino-acyl binding site (d) mRNA binding site

39. The greek letter y in tRNA molecule denotes
(a) pseudouridine (b) dihydrouridine (c) inosine (d) ribothymidine

40. The 5’ end of a tRNA always starts with and 3’ end terminates with
(a) A and GGA respectively (b) G and CCA respectively
(c) GGA and G respectively (d) A and CAC respectively
41. Transcription occurs in
(a) Nucleus (b) Nucleolus (c) Cytoplasm (d) Ribosome

42. The prokaryotic mRNA has
(a) poly A tail at 5’ end (b) poly A tail at 3’ end (c) poly A tail at both the ends (d) no poly A tail

43. The enzyme RNA polymerase was first isolated by
(a) Jacob & Monad (b) Temin & Baltimore (c) Chamberlein & Berg (d) Temin & Monad

44. Which RNA is short-lived ?
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) snRNA

45. The function of nucleolus is to sythesise
(a) DNA (b) mRNA (c) rRNA (d) tRNA

46. RNA directed DNA synthesis was first reported in
(a) polio virus (b) rhabdovirus (c) retrovirus (d) TMV

47. RNA responsible for directing the proper sequence of aminoacids during protein synthesis is
(a) Chromosomal RNA (b) Transfer RNA (c) Messenger RNA (d) Ribosomal RNA

48. The function of mRNA is to
(a) carry amino acids to the site of protein synthesis (b) synthesise a new molecule of DNA
(c) act as a template for the synthesis of a protein (d) manufacture new ribosomes

49. Mark the correct statement
(a) eukaryotic mRNA does not undergo processing (b) prokaryotic mRNA is monocistronic
(c) eukaryotic mRNA is polycistronic (d) prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic

50. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a portion of a coding segment of DNA was AAT GCT TAG GCA. What will be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the corresponding region of the transcripted mRNA ? (2005)
(a) UUT CGT TUC CGU (b) AAT GCT TAG GCA
(c) UUA CGA AUC CGU (d) TTA CGA ATC CGT

51. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a particular region of the non-coding strand of a DNA molecule was found to be CAT GTT TAT CGC. What would be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the mRNA that is synthesised by the corresponding region of the coding strand in that DNA ?
(a) GUA CAA AUA GCC (b) GTA CAA ATA GCC
(c) CAU GUU UAU CGC (d) CAA GAA TAU GCC

52. RNA and DNA are similar in that they
(a) are double stranded (b) are polynucleotide chains
(c) have similar pentose sugars (d) have similar pyrimidines

53. Identify the true statement
(a) there is one type of RNA, whereas there are many types of naturally occuring DNA
(b) DNA is single stranded, but RNA is double stranded
(c) DNA has A, G, C and U and RNA has A, G, C and T
(d) DNA synthesises RNA, but RNA generally can’t synthesise DNA

54. Bioreactors are
(a) vessels or tanks where gene cloning is carried out
(b) vessels or tanks where anaerobic microbes are multiplied
(c) vessels or tanks where fermentation is carried out using microbes
(d) living microorganisms used to carry out fermentation

55. Recombinant DNA technology was developed by
(a) Hamilton Smith (b) H. Boyer & S. Cohen (c) Lederberg (d) Messing & Vieira

56. Plasmid, in general, is
(a) a type of virus (b) a type bacteria
(c) the genetic material of virus (d) an extra chromosomal circular DNA of bacterium

57. pBR 322 and pUC 18 are plasmids (original / modified ) of
(a) E. coli (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) Salmonella species (d) Rhizobium

58. cDNA is
(a) cytoplasmic DNA present in mitochondria
(b) complementary DNA produced from a DNA in the presence of DNA polymerase
(c) complementary DNA produced from mRNA in the presence of reverse transcriptase
(d) short segments of DNA which are present in the cytoplasm

59. The transgenic bacteria which is used in insulin synthesis is
(a) E. coli (b) Clostridum (c) Pseudomonas (d) Agrobacterium

60. Insulin from the fusion protein or hybrid protein produced during its synthesis by recombination DNA technology is separated by using
(a) PEG (b) Cyanogen bromide (c) Sodium sulphonate (d) Colchicine

61. In DNA fingerprinting, bands of single stranded DNA are transferred to a nitrocellulose sheet by
(a) gel electrophoresis (b) Southern blotting (c) polymerase chain reaction (d) rDNA technology

62. DNA probe used in DNA fingerprinting is
(a) a radioactive synthetic ssDNA of known base sequence
(b) a radioactive synthetic dsDNA of known base sequence
(c) fragments of DNA of unknown sequence on the nitrocellulose membrane
(d) fragments of DNA of unknown sequence on agarose gel columns

63. DNA fingerprint or profile is distinct combinations of
(a) cistrons (b) variable number of tandem repeats
(c) euchromatic regions (d) palindromic sequences

64. Most of the nuclear DNA in humans consists of
(a) Unique sequences that function as genes
(b) Repetitive sequences such as short interspersed repeated sequences and long interspersed repeated sequences
(c) Introns
(d) (d) Exons

65. VNTRs are
(a) non-cistronic hyper-variable repeat mini-satellite sequences
(b) cistrons of genes with repeat mini-satellite sequences
(c) palindromic regions of DNA
(d) DNA amplified through polymerase chain reaction

66. The plant part which is inoculated in tissue culture technique is called (2005)
(a) plasmid (b) callus (c) explant (d) vector

67. The undifferentiated and unorganised mass of tissue in culture is called
(a) crown (b) callus (c) callose (d) teratoma

68. In a crop improvement programme, haploids are of great importance because they
(a) grow better in adverse conditions (b) give homozygons lines on diploidisation
(b) are useful in the study of meiosis (c) need less of fertiliser as compared to diploids

69. Haploid plantlets can be produced by
(a) embryo culture (b) meristem culture (c) pollen culture (d) cotyledon culture

70. The enzymes used to obtain protoplasts during somatic hybridization are
(a) Cellulase and protease (b) Cellulase and amylase
(c) Cellulase and pectinase (d) Amylase and pectinase

71. Dr M S Swaminathan could produce an amber - seeded high yielding wheat variety called “Sharabati Sonora” from Mexican dwarf variety by using
(a) radiation of UV and gamma rays (b) chemical mutagens
(c) tissue culture (d) cross breeding techniques

72. The best method to obtain disease - free plants through tissue culture techniques is
(a) anther culture (b) embryo culture (c) meristem culture (d) protoplast culture

73. Polyploidy can be induced in individuals by
(a) auxins (b) gibberellins (c) kinetin (d) colchicine

74. Somatic hybridization (protoplast fusion) is brought about by
(a) Pectinase (b) Polyethylene glycol (c) Agarose gel (d) Cytokinin

75. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as
(a) they are self replicating within the bacterial cells
(b) they replicate freely outside the bacterial cells
(c) they can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
(d) they can be multiplied by culturing

76. Protoplast fusion results in the formation of
(a) pure line (b) true breeding plants (c) clones (d) somatic hybrids

77. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves
(a) cleaving DNA segments with ligase and rejoining them with endonuclease
(b) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ligase alone
(c) cleaving and rejoining DNA segements with endonuclease alone
(d) cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and rejoining them with ligase

78. ‘Golden rice’, a GM rice variety is obtained by introducing three alien genes into the genome of Oryza sativa. The alien genes are from
(a) Erwinia euredovera and daffodil (b) Erwinia euredovera and Zea mays
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and daffodil (d) daffodil and Zea mays

79. Foreign genes were introduced into rice to get ‘golden rice’ through the plasmid of
(a) A. tumefaciens (b) E. euredovera (c) B. thuringiensis (d) E.coli

80. What is true about monoclonal antibodies ?
(a) it is produced by hybridoma technology & developed by George Kohler and Ceaser Milstein
(b) it was developed by Gottleib Haberlandt
(c) they are used to obtain transgenic animals
(d) they are antibodies obtained by inducing polyploidy in cells

81. Human Genome Project (HGP) was conceived mainly by
(a) Francis Collins and Roderick (b) Watson and Crick
(c) Beadle and Tatum (d) Paul Berg and Wollman
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Few sample questions for CET in BIODIVERSITY :

1. If all the plants on earth die suddenly, all the animals die immediately due to the deficiency of
(a) Food (b) Shade (c) Oxygen (d) Shelter

2. Choose the correct statement;
(a) Term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by Walter & Rosen in 1985 and popularised by Edward O Wilson in 1986
(b) Term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by E O Wilson in 1985 and popularised by Walter and Rosen in 1986
(c) Term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by Richter in 1984 and popularised by E O Wilson in 1986
(d) Term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by Walter and Rosen in 1985 and popularised by Richter in 1986

3. Biological species is an
(a) Inexhaustible natural resource (b) Inexhaustible renewable resource
(c) Exhaustible renewable resource (d) Exhaustible non - renewable resource

4. Variety within a species is referred to as
(a) Ecosystem diversity (b) Habitat diversity (c) Genetic diversity (d) Species diversity

5. The richest and the most threatened reservoirs of plant and animal life on earth are called
(a) Megadiversity zones (b) Hot spots of biodiversity
(c) Biosphere reserves (d) Gradients of biodiversity

6. The ‘hot spots’ concept was developed by
(a) Norman Myers (b) Walter and Rosen (c) Edward Wilson (d) Richter

7. The two biodiversity ‘hot spots’ in India are
(a) The peninsular plateau and eastern Himalayas (b) The western ghats and peninsular plateau
(c) The peninsular plateau and nothern great plains (d) The western ghats and eastern Himalayas

8. The contribution of India to global biodiversity is
(a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 10% (d) 13%

9. Which habitat shows highest diversity of living species ?
(a) Desert (b) Temperate forest (c) Tropical rain forest (d) Grassland

10. Biodiversity is determined by
(a) Evenness of species (b) Number of individuals in an area
(c) Species richness (d) Both (a) and (c)

11. A keystone species is the one which has
(a) A small proportion of total biomass but has a huge impact on community’s organization and survival
(b) A plenty of biomass but low impact on community’s organization
(c) A rare species with little impact on biomass and other species in the community
(d) A dominant species which has a large proportion of biomass and which affects many other species

12. Match the types of ecosystem diversity listed in Column I with their meanings given under column II; Choose the answer with the correct combination of alphabets.
Column I (Type of diversity) Column II (Meaning)
(A) Alpha diversity p. Between – community diversity
(B) Beta diversity q. Diversity in ranges of community
(C) Gamma diversity r. Within – community diversity
s. Genetic diversity

(a) A=s, B=p, C=r (b) A=q, B=r, C=p
(c) A=r, B=p, C=q (d) A=r, B=r, C=s
13. Read the two statements A and B.
Statement A: Diversity observed in the entire geographical area is called gamma diversity
Statement B: Biodiversity decreases from high altitude to low altitude
Identify the correct choice from those given (2006)
(a) Statement A is correct, B is wrong (b) Statement B is correct, A is wrong
(c) Both the statements A and B are correct (d) Both the statements A and B are wrong

14. Species diversity increases from
(a) High altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(b) Low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(c) Low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high latitude
(d) High altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high latitude

15. Diversity of the habitat over the total landscape is called
(a) α – diversity (b) β – diversity (c) γ – diversity (d) Landscape diversity

16. A species whose number is so small that it is in danger of immediate extinction if adverse causal factors continue to operate is
(a) Rare species (b) Endangered species (c) Vulnerable species (d) Extinct species

17. A species which is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the causal factors continue to operate is referred to as
(a) rare species (b) Vulnerable species (c) Keystone species (d) Extinct species

18. An organism restricted to a particular geopgraphical area is called
(a) Endangered species (b) Endemic species (c) Pandemic species (d) Exotic species

19. The scientific name of great Indian bustard is
(a) Ardeotis nigriceps (b) Falco peregrinus (c) Bubo bubo (d) Pavo cristatus

20. Indian bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) has become endangered due to
(a) Reduced rainfall (b) Spread of desert (c) Hunting (d) Change in climate

21. Which of the following is an endangered species ?
(a) Peacock (b) Kashmiri stag (c) Indian bustard (d) Spotted deer

22. Which of the following is an endangered species in India ?
(a) Slender loris (b) Indian bustard (c) Lion (d) All these

23. Animal that has become extinct in India is
(a) Snow leopard (b) Cheetah (c) Gharial (d) Slender loris

24. Red Data Book (RDB) deals with species which are
(a) Endemic (b) Extinct (c) Pandemic (d) On the verge of extinction

25. The organization which has published the ‘Red Data Book’ is (2003)
(a) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(c) Conservation of International Trade in Endangered species of Wild Flora and Fauna
(d) National Wild life Action Plan

26. This is considered as a sacred plant by many in India
(a) Rauwolfia serpentine (b) Eleusine coracona (c) Flemingia vestita (d) Ficus benghalensis
27. New approach to conservation is the establishment of
(a) Sanctuaries (b) Biosphere reserves (c) National parks (d) Reserve forests

28. Genetic diversity in agricultural crops is threatened by
(a) Introduction of high yielding varieties (b) Intensive use of fertilisers
(c) Extensive inter-cropping (d) Extensive use of pesticides and insecticides

29. Desertification is caused by
(a) Over-grazing (b) Deforestation (c) Over-cultivation (d) All these

30. The percentage of land with forest cover in India is
(a) 19% (b) 26% (c) 29% (d) 33%

31. Deforestation causes
(a) Soil erosion (b) Reduced rainfall (c) More floods (d) All these

32. One of the following is normally not an air pollutant.
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Oxides of nitrogen (c) CO (d) CO2

33. When huge quantity of sewage is dumped in a river, the BOD will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Slightly decrease (d) Remain unchanged

34. TEK is
(a) Traditional Ethical Know-how (b) Threatened and Endangered Kind
(c) Traditional Ecological Knowledge (d) A company which has patented basmathi raice

35. TEK promotes
(a) Conservation of natural resources (b) Destruction of resources
(c) Depletion of biodiversity (d) Destruction of natural habitats

36. MAB stands for
(a) Man and Biosphere programme (b) Man and Biosphere preservation
(c) Man and Biodiversity programme (d) Man and Bioreserve project

37. The unethical practice of procuring biological wealth from other countries and patenting it subsequently is referred to as
(a) Biocontrol (b) Biowar (c) Bioconspiracy (d) Biopiracy

38. This is a species which is patented (for any of its products or components)
(a) Basmathi rice (b) Neem (c) Turmeric (d) All these

39. Constant and heavy grazing results in one of these.
(a) The superficial layers of soil are loosened and eroded
(b) The sub-soil is made more compact which causes reduced respiration in roots
(c) The top layers of soil become more compact
(d) None of these

40. The chief aim of water conservation methods is to reduce the amount of
(a) Evaporation (b) Precipitation (c) Run-off water (d) Ground water

41. Soil is
(a) An indestructible resource (b) A destructible renewable resource
(c) A destructible non - renewable resource (d) A non - renewable resource
42. Loss of surface soil by soil erosion is caused mainly by
(a) Rapid industrialisation (b) Defroestation and mining
(c) Modern farming techniques (d) Afforestation

43. Soil erosion can be checked by
(a) Restricted human activity (b) Wind screen alone
(c) Checking movement of animals (d) Good plant cover

44. Crop rotation is essential for
(a) Increasing the nitrogen content of the soil (b) Increasing the water content of the soil
(c) Increasing the mineral content of the soil (d) Increasing the humus content of the soil

45. Soil conservation by mulching involves
(a) Protection of soil by straw and stubbles (b) Growing cereals and pulses in alternate rows
(c) Growing crops in rows (d) Tilling land at right angles to slope

46. `Mulching’ helps mainly in
(a) Increasing soil fertility (b) Controlling weeds
(b) Improving soil texture (d) Moisture conservation

47. Ex situ type of biodiversity conservation is
(a) Seed gene bank (b) Biosphere reserves (c) Botanical gardens (d) National parks

48. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is
(a) Wild life sanctuaries (c) Cryopreservation (c) Biosphere reserves (d) National parks

49. Which of the following is a method of in situ conservation ?
(a) National park (b) Botanical garden (c) Tissue culture (d) Cryopreservation

50. The most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife is
(a) Pollution of air and water (b) Hunting for valuable wildlife products
(c) Introduction of exotic species (d) Alteration and destruction of natural habitats

51. The method of providing more protection to the members of a particular species which is becoming rare is called
(a) Assemblage protection (b) Species protection (c) Habitat protection (d) Ex situ conservation

52. Kaziranga national park is famous for
(a) Rhinoceros (b) Lion (c) Musk deer (d) Indian bustard

53. Chipko movement is concerned with,
(a) Forest conservation (b) Plant breeding (c) Project tiger (d) Conservation of natural resources

54. Sunderlal Bahuguna is associated with
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan (b) Green revolution
(c) Chipko movement (d) Silent Valley conservation movement

55. Bandipur wild life sanctuary is known for
(a) Panthera leopersica (b) Panthera tigris (c) Rhinoceros unicornis (d) Ardeotis nigriceps

56. Jim corbett Park is located in
(a) Nainital, Uttar Pradesh (b) Bannerghatta, Karnataka
(c) Khaziranga, Assam (d) Bharathpur, Rajasthan
57. Match the names of animals given under column I with the wild life sanctuaries in which they are protected in column II; Choose the answer with the correct combination of alphabets.
Column I Column II
(A) Asiatic lion p. Dachingaum sanctuary, Kashmir
(B) Siberian crane q. Kanha national park, MP
(C) Hangul r. Gir national park, Gujrath
(D) Balckbuck s. Bharatpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
t. Ranganathittoo sanctuary, Karnataka

(a) A=r, B=s, C=p, D=q (b) A=r, B=t, C=p, D=q
(c) A=r, B=s, C=q, D=p (d) A=r, B=t, C=q, D=p

58. The Siberian crane from Russia is a regular visitor to the bird sanctuary in this place in India (’91)
(a) Ranganathittoo sanctuary (b) Bharathpur sanctuary, Rajasthan
(c) Lalbagh, Bangalore (d) Vedanthangal sanctuary, Tamil Nadu

59. Biosphere reserve is an example of
(a) in vivo conservation (b) in situ conservation (c) ex situ conservation (d) in vitro conservation

60. In a Biosphere Reserve, the area surrounding the core zone is called
(a) Buffer zone (b) Transition zone (c) peripheral zone (d) Development zone

61. In a biosphere reserve, the buffer zone is an area where
(a) No human activity is permitted (b) Human activities are allowed on a large scale
(c) Limited human activity is allowed (d) Private ownership is allowed

62. The term ‘acid rain’ was first coined by
(a) Rowland and Molina (b) Paul Crutzen (c) Robert Angus (d) Carl Sagan

63. The pH of acid rain is
(a) 7 (b) > 7 (c) 5.6 – 7 (d) below 5.6

64. In chemical composition, 70% of acid rain is
(a) Nitric acid (b) Sulphuric acid (c) Carbonic acid (d) Hydrochloric acid

65. In acid rain, SO2 accounts for
(a) 50% (b) 30% (c) 70% (d) 100%

66. Acid rain is caused mainly due to
(a) NO2 and SO2 (b) NH3 and SO2 (c) CO and CO2 (d) O3 and CO2

67. 90% of ozone is distributed in the
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Hydrosphere (d) Lithosphere

68. Peeling of ozone umbrella which protects us from UV rays is caused by
(a) PAN (b) CO2 (c) CFCs (d) Coal buring

69. CFCs in the atmosphere was first detected by
(a) James Lovelock (b) Rowland and Molina (c) Pollack (d) Ackermann

70. The stratospheric ozone depletion leads to
(a) Floods (b) Global warming (c) Forest fires (d) Increased incidence of cancer

71. The result of ‘ozone hole’ is (2001)
(a) The UV radiations reach the earth (b) Greenhouse effect
(c) Acid rain (d) Global warming

72. Koyoto Protocol is to
(a) Check the depletion of ozone layer (b) Check soil erosion
(c) Protect wildlife (d) Preserve water resources

73. A hypothetical global climatic condition that was predicted to be a possible outcome of a large scale nuclear war is called
(a) Nuclear fall-out (b) Nuclear holocaust (c) Nuclear winter (d) Nuclear spring

74. Which of the following gases contributes maximum to the green house effect on earth ?
(a) CO2 (b) CFC (c) Freon (d) CH4

75. CO2, CH4, N2O and CFCs are called green house gases, because they can absorb
(a) UV radiations (b) Long wavelength IR radiations
(c) Visible light radiations (d) γ - radiations

76. This is considered as ‘biological diversity day’
(a) 29th December (b) 5th June (c) 22nd May (d) 16th September

77. 16th September is observed as
(a) World environment day (b) World population day
(c) World ozone day (d) World biodiversity day

78. World environment day is celebrated on
(a) June 5 (b) July 11 (c) October 14 (d) December 1

79. The Wildlife Protection Act was promulgated in
(a) 1965 (b) 1972 (c) 1975 (d) 1982

80. The ‘Environment Protection Act’ was promulgated in India in
(a) 1975 (b) 1982 (c) 1986 (d) 1988
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