1. The strongest evidence for DNA being the genetic material is deduced from
(a) the fact that DNA is present not only in the nucleus, but also in mitochondria and chloroplast
(b) the situation that chromosomes are made up of DNA
(c) the researches involving transformation experiments in bacteria
(d) the reality that DNA has the potential to duplicate itself
2. Transformation experiments in Diplococcus pneumoniae (Pneumococcus) led to the hypothesis that
(a) RNA is the transforming principle (b) DNA is the genetic material
(c) chromosomes are made up of DNA (d) bacteria have sexual reproduction
3. Nucleic acid was first discovered as ‘nuclein’ by
(a) A Kornberg (b) Fischer (c) F Meischer (d) J Griffith
4. DNA is present in
(a) pyrenoids (b) microbodies (c) dictyosome (d) chondriosome
5. Guanosine differs from Guanylic acid in not having
(a) phosphate (b) sugar (c) nitro-base (d) phosphate and sugar
6. Adenosine is a combination of
(a) ribose, phosphate and adenine (b) ribose and adenine
(c) deoxyribose, phosphate and adenine (d) deoxyribose and adenine
7. The distance between the two strands of DNA is
(a) 20 Å (b) 34 Å (c) 3.4 Å (d) 10 Å
8. The lengths of major groove and minor groove are
(a) 22 Å and 12 Å respectively (b) 20 Å and 10 Å respectively
(c) 34 Å and 3.4 Å respectively (b) 20 Å and 12 Å respectively
9. Chargaff’s rule is applicable to
(a) ssRNA (b) ssDNA (c) dsDNA (d) both ssDNA and ssRNA
10. A Nobel prize was awarded for discovering that there are two purines and two pyrimidines to
(a) F Meischer (b) Feulgen (c) Altman (d) Kossel
11. The phosphate group in the DNA is attached to deoxy-ribose generally at
(a) 2’ and 3’ carbon (b) 2’and 5’ carbon (c) 3’ and 5’ carbon (d) 2’ and 4’ carbon
12. In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base and phosphate groups are attached to the
(a) 1’ and 3’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively (b) 2’ and 3’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively
(c) 1’ and 5’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively (d) 2’ and 5’ carbon atoms of sugar respectively
13. Phosphodiester bond is present in
(a) ATP (b) ADP (c) cAMP (d) Nucleic acids
14. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
(a) antiparallel (b) complementary (c) helically coiled (d) all these
15. The two strands of DNA are linked by hydrogen bonds established by
(a) A - T, G - C (b) A - G, T - C (c) A - C, G - T (d) A - U, G – C
16. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except
(a) a polypeptide chain (b) a mRNA strand
(c) a rRNA strand (d) a complementary DNA strand
17. Purines are
(a) large sized, dicyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases (b) large sized, monocyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases
(c) small sized, monocyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases (d) small sized, dicyclic, heterocyclic nitrobases
18.
A+T
G+C
is referred to as ( in DNA)
(a) base coefficient (b) sedimentation coefficient (c) base ratio (d) Svedberg unit
19. In a DNA molecule,
(a) A + G = T + C (b) A + T = G + C (c) A + C = T + G (d) A + U = G + C
20. In a double stranded DNA which has 15% Adenine, there will be
(a) 15% cytosine (b) 35% cytosine (c) 85% cytosine (d) 30% cytosine
21. A sample of DNA is found to have the base composition (mole ratio) of A = 35, T = 25, G = 24 and C = 16. It suggests that
(a) DNA is circular duplex (b) DNA is linear duplex (c) DNA is single stranded (d) It is Z - DNA
22. DNA replication in eukaryotes commences
(a) from centromere to either end of the chromosome
(b) from both ends of a chromosome simultaneously
(c) from one end of chromosome and proceeds till the other end
(d) at several sites of a chromosome simultaneously
23. The unwinding of DNA duplex is performed by an enzyme called
(a) lactase (b) gyrase (c) maltase (d) ligase
24. `Okazaki fragments’ are
(a) segments of DNA capable of protein synthesis (b) segments of DNA capable of recombination
(c) segments of DNA formed during DNA duplication (d) segments of DNA capable of mutation
25. In a bacterial cell, in the absence of ligase enzyme
(a) the accumulation of Okazaki fragments occurs (b) the RNA primer is not synthesised
(c) replicatioin is not at all initiated (d) replication becomes continuous
26. DNA replication requires
(a) helicase, gyrase, DNA polymerase, primase
(b) helicase, RNA primer, ligase, DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer, DNA polymerase, helicase, ligase, primase
(d) RNA primer, DNA polymerase, primase, helicase, ligase, gyrase
27. A – DNA is
(a) right handed helix with 11 base pairs per turn (b) right handed helix with 9 base pairs per turn
(c) right handed helix with 8 base pairs per turn (d) right handed helix with 10 base pairs per turn
28. Z - DNA is
(a) right handed helix with 9 base pairs per turn
(b) right handed helix with 10 base pairs per turn
(c) left handed helix with 11 base pairs per turn
(d) left handed helix with 12 base pairs per turn
29. Who among the following established that RNA is the genetic material ?
(a) Fraenkal – Conorat (b) Griffith (c) Hershey & chase (d) Avery, McLeod & McCarty
30. Who was awarded the Nobel prize for synthesising RNA ?
(a) Ochoa (b) H G Khorana (c) Kornberg (d) Holley
31. RNA is found
(a) only in cytoplasm (b) only in nucleus (c) only in chromosome (d) both in cytoplasm and nucleus
32. The following has RNA as the genetic material
(a) polio virus (b) T4 bacteriophage (c) wound tumor virus (d) HBV
33. This virus has double stranded genomic RNA
(a) TMV (b) wound tumor virus (c) HIV (d) HBV
34. A riboside is
(a) ribose and base (b) ribose, phosphate and base
(c) base and phosphate (d) ribose and phosphate
35. Uridine is a combination of
(a) ribose and uracil (b) deoxy-ribose and uracil
(c) ribose, phosphate and uracil (d) deoxy-ribose, phosphate and uracil
36. In the clover leaf model of yeast’s alanine – tRNA, the arm without the loop is
(a) DHU arm (b) acceptor arm (c) ribosomal arm (d) aminoacyl arm
37. T y C loop in tRNA is
(a) amino acid binding site (b) mRNA binding site
(c) anticodon site (d) ribosomal binding site
38. DHU loop in tRNA is
(a) amino acid binding site (b) ribosomal binding site
(c) amino-acyl binding site (d) mRNA binding site
39. The greek letter y in tRNA molecule denotes
(a) pseudouridine (b) dihydrouridine (c) inosine (d) ribothymidine
40. The 5’ end of a tRNA always starts with and 3’ end terminates with
(a) A and GGA respectively (b) G and CCA respectively
(c) GGA and G respectively (d) A and CAC respectively
41. Transcription occurs in
(a) Nucleus (b) Nucleolus (c) Cytoplasm (d) Ribosome
42. The prokaryotic mRNA has
(a) poly A tail at 5’ end (b) poly A tail at 3’ end (c) poly A tail at both the ends (d) no poly A tail
43. The enzyme RNA polymerase was first isolated by
(a) Jacob & Monad (b) Temin & Baltimore (c) Chamberlein & Berg (d) Temin & Monad
44. Which RNA is short-lived ?
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) snRNA
45. The function of nucleolus is to sythesise
(a) DNA (b) mRNA (c) rRNA (d) tRNA
46. RNA directed DNA synthesis was first reported in
(a) polio virus (b) rhabdovirus (c) retrovirus (d) TMV
47. RNA responsible for directing the proper sequence of aminoacids during protein synthesis is
(a) Chromosomal RNA (b) Transfer RNA (c) Messenger RNA (d) Ribosomal RNA
48. The function of mRNA is to
(a) carry amino acids to the site of protein synthesis (b) synthesise a new molecule of DNA
(c) act as a template for the synthesis of a protein (d) manufacture new ribosomes
49. Mark the correct statement
(a) eukaryotic mRNA does not undergo processing (b) prokaryotic mRNA is monocistronic
(c) eukaryotic mRNA is polycistronic (d) prokaryotic mRNA is polycistronic
50. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a portion of a coding segment of DNA was AAT GCT TAG GCA. What will be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the corresponding region of the transcripted mRNA ? (2005)
(a) UUT CGT TUC CGU (b) AAT GCT TAG GCA
(c) UUA CGA AUC CGU (d) TTA CGA ATC CGT
51. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a particular region of the non-coding strand of a DNA molecule was found to be CAT GTT TAT CGC. What would be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the mRNA that is synthesised by the corresponding region of the coding strand in that DNA ?
(a) GUA CAA AUA GCC (b) GTA CAA ATA GCC
(c) CAU GUU UAU CGC (d) CAA GAA TAU GCC
52. RNA and DNA are similar in that they
(a) are double stranded (b) are polynucleotide chains
(c) have similar pentose sugars (d) have similar pyrimidines
53. Identify the true statement
(a) there is one type of RNA, whereas there are many types of naturally occuring DNA
(b) DNA is single stranded, but RNA is double stranded
(c) DNA has A, G, C and U and RNA has A, G, C and T
(d) DNA synthesises RNA, but RNA generally can’t synthesise DNA
54. Bioreactors are
(a) vessels or tanks where gene cloning is carried out
(b) vessels or tanks where anaerobic microbes are multiplied
(c) vessels or tanks where fermentation is carried out using microbes
(d) living microorganisms used to carry out fermentation
55. Recombinant DNA technology was developed by
(a) Hamilton Smith (b) H. Boyer & S. Cohen (c) Lederberg (d) Messing & Vieira
56. Plasmid, in general, is
(a) a type of virus (b) a type bacteria
(c) the genetic material of virus (d) an extra chromosomal circular DNA of bacterium
57. pBR 322 and pUC 18 are plasmids (original / modified ) of
(a) E. coli (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (c) Salmonella species (d) Rhizobium
58. cDNA is
(a) cytoplasmic DNA present in mitochondria
(b) complementary DNA produced from a DNA in the presence of DNA polymerase
(c) complementary DNA produced from mRNA in the presence of reverse transcriptase
(d) short segments of DNA which are present in the cytoplasm
59. The transgenic bacteria which is used in insulin synthesis is
(a) E. coli (b) Clostridum (c) Pseudomonas (d) Agrobacterium
60. Insulin from the fusion protein or hybrid protein produced during its synthesis by recombination DNA technology is separated by using
(a) PEG (b) Cyanogen bromide (c) Sodium sulphonate (d) Colchicine
61. In DNA fingerprinting, bands of single stranded DNA are transferred to a nitrocellulose sheet by
(a) gel electrophoresis (b) Southern blotting (c) polymerase chain reaction (d) rDNA technology
62. DNA probe used in DNA fingerprinting is
(a) a radioactive synthetic ssDNA of known base sequence
(b) a radioactive synthetic dsDNA of known base sequence
(c) fragments of DNA of unknown sequence on the nitrocellulose membrane
(d) fragments of DNA of unknown sequence on agarose gel columns
63. DNA fingerprint or profile is distinct combinations of
(a) cistrons (b) variable number of tandem repeats
(c) euchromatic regions (d) palindromic sequences
64. Most of the nuclear DNA in humans consists of
(a) Unique sequences that function as genes
(b) Repetitive sequences such as short interspersed repeated sequences and long interspersed repeated sequences
(c) Introns
(d) (d) Exons
65. VNTRs are
(a) non-cistronic hyper-variable repeat mini-satellite sequences
(b) cistrons of genes with repeat mini-satellite sequences
(c) palindromic regions of DNA
(d) DNA amplified through polymerase chain reaction
66. The plant part which is inoculated in tissue culture technique is called (2005)
(a) plasmid (b) callus (c) explant (d) vector
67. The undifferentiated and unorganised mass of tissue in culture is called
(a) crown (b) callus (c) callose (d) teratoma
68. In a crop improvement programme, haploids are of great importance because they
(a) grow better in adverse conditions (b) give homozygons lines on diploidisation
(b) are useful in the study of meiosis (c) need less of fertiliser as compared to diploids
69. Haploid plantlets can be produced by
(a) embryo culture (b) meristem culture (c) pollen culture (d) cotyledon culture
70. The enzymes used to obtain protoplasts during somatic hybridization are
(a) Cellulase and protease (b) Cellulase and amylase
(c) Cellulase and pectinase (d) Amylase and pectinase
71. Dr M S Swaminathan could produce an amber - seeded high yielding wheat variety called “Sharabati Sonora” from Mexican dwarf variety by using
(a) radiation of UV and gamma rays (b) chemical mutagens
(c) tissue culture (d) cross breeding techniques
72. The best method to obtain disease - free plants through tissue culture techniques is
(a) anther culture (b) embryo culture (c) meristem culture (d) protoplast culture
73. Polyploidy can be induced in individuals by
(a) auxins (b) gibberellins (c) kinetin (d) colchicine
74. Somatic hybridization (protoplast fusion) is brought about by
(a) Pectinase (b) Polyethylene glycol (c) Agarose gel (d) Cytokinin
75. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as
(a) they are self replicating within the bacterial cells
(b) they replicate freely outside the bacterial cells
(c) they can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
(d) they can be multiplied by culturing
76. Protoplast fusion results in the formation of
(a) pure line (b) true breeding plants (c) clones (d) somatic hybrids
77. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves
(a) cleaving DNA segments with ligase and rejoining them with endonuclease
(b) cleaving and rejoining DNA segments with ligase alone
(c) cleaving and rejoining DNA segements with endonuclease alone
(d) cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and rejoining them with ligase
78. ‘Golden rice’, a GM rice variety is obtained by introducing three alien genes into the genome of Oryza sativa. The alien genes are from
(a) Erwinia euredovera and daffodil (b) Erwinia euredovera and Zea mays
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and daffodil (d) daffodil and Zea mays
79. Foreign genes were introduced into rice to get ‘golden rice’ through the plasmid of
(a) A. tumefaciens (b) E. euredovera (c) B. thuringiensis (d) E.coli
80. What is true about monoclonal antibodies ?
(a) it is produced by hybridoma technology & developed by George Kohler and Ceaser Milstein
(b) it was developed by Gottleib Haberlandt
(c) they are used to obtain transgenic animals
(d) they are antibodies obtained by inducing polyploidy in cells
81. Human Genome Project (HGP) was conceived mainly by
(a) Francis Collins and Roderick (b) Watson and Crick
(c) Beadle and Tatum (d) Paul Berg and Wollman
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